Question for Professor Quigley

Do you think a part of the reason of why the United States did not want the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, as well as women's rights treaties, to be legally binding was because it was a threat to the governments power and what do you think they were afraid of happening? Would the United States still be opposed in having the declaration legally binding today even though the US abides by the rights? If not, why?

Also, is the act of participating with the declaration still effective even though there is no commitment that nations needs to be abide by because there are no legal consequences?